Difference between revisions of "Talk:Speaking in tongues (G.G.)"
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Revision as of 04:35, 26 November 2006
In response to the question "If speaking in tongues today is a representation of speaking in tongues from the Bible, then why is this lacking?", surely the obvious answer is "Wasn't it also lacking in Cornelius' house, Ephesus and Corinth?" It seems to be unique to Pentecost, or at least non-normative.
